Economics 2.0 – Exam Job Expert

NON-COMPETITIVE MARKETS

1 / 20

In perfect competition, a company earns an abnormal profit when average revenue exceeds the?

1.Total revenue.

2.Average cost.

3.Total fixed cost.

4.Marginal revenue.

2 / 20

Under which one of the following forms of market structure does a firm have no control over the price of its product?

1.Monopoly.

2.Monopolistic competition.

3.Oligopoly.

4.Perfect competition.

3 / 20

Pure oligopoly is based on the _________ products.

1.differentiated.

2.homogeneous.

3.unrelated.

4.None of these.

4 / 20

All of the following are characteristics of a monopoly except:___________.

1.There is a single firm.

2.The firm is a price-taker.

3.The firm produces a unique product.

4.The existence of some advertising.

5 / 20

The demand curve of a monopoly firm will be ____________.

1.upward sloping.

2.downward sloping.

3.horizontal.

4.vertical.

6 / 20

The motive of a cartel is to regulate the:

1.Quality of the product.

2.Demand for a product.

3.Output and sales of a product.

4.Wages of the workers.

7 / 20

The concept of the supply curve is relevant only for?

1.Oligopoly.

2.Monopoly.

3.Monopolistic Competition.

4.Perfect Competition.

8 / 20

Which of the below-mentioned option is not mentioned in imperfect competition?

1.A large number of buyers.

2.Single sellers.

3.Similar/Homogeneous product.

4.Price maker.

9 / 20

Average revenue and price are always equal under:

1.Perfect competition only.

2.Monopolistic competition only.

3.Monopoly only.

4.All market forms.

10 / 20

Which of the following is not the feature of an imperfect competition?

1.Large number of buyers.

2.Single seller.

3.Homogeneous products.

4.Price maker.

11 / 20

A firm is able to sell more quantity of a good only by lowering the price. The firm’s marginal revenue, as he goes on selling, would be:

1.Greater than average revenue.

2.Less than average revenue.

3.Equal to average revenue.

4.Zero.

12 / 20

There are only a few sellers under.

1.Perfect competition.

2.Monopolistic competition.

3.Monopoly.

4.Oligopoly.

13 / 20

The form of the market having only 2 sellers is called:

1.monopoly.

2.duopoly.

3.oligopoly.

4.monopolistic competition.

14 / 20

There is inverse relation between price and demand for the product of a firm under:

1.Monopoly only.

2.Monopolistic competition only.

3.Both under monopoly and monopolistic competition.

4.Perfect competition only.

15 / 20

The soft drink market is dominated by coke, Pepsi and very few other firms. The firms often start price wars. The market can best be classified as:

1.Perfect competition.

2.Monopolistic competition.

3.Oligopoly.

4.Monopoly.

16 / 20

Suppose total revenue is rising at a constant rate as more and more units of a commodity are sold, marginal revenue would be:

1.Greater than average revenue.

2.Equal to average revenue.

3.Less than average revenue.

4.Rising.

17 / 20

'A few big sellers' is a characteristics of:

1.Perfect competition.

2.Monopolistic competition.

3.Oligopoly.

4.None of the above.

18 / 20

One characteristic not typical of Oligopolistic industry is its:

1.Horizontal demand curve.

2.Too much importance to non-price competition.

3.Price leadership.

4.A small number of firms in the industry.

19 / 20

Price discrimination will be profitable only if the elasticity of demand in different sub markets is:

1.Uniform.

2.Different.

3.Less.

4.Zero.

20 / 20

Differentiated products is a characteristic of:

1.Monopolistic competition only.

2.Oligopoly only.

3.Both monopolistic competition and oligopoly.

4.Monopoly.

Your score is

The average score is 40%

MEASURES OF CENTRAL TENDENCY

1 / 20

__________ is used when the sum of deviations from the average ignories as the signs fins should be least.

1.Median.

2.Index number.

3.Mean.

4.Mode.

2 / 20

Which of the following is not as measure of central tendency?

1.Mode.

2.Mean.

3.Median.

4.Range.

3 / 20

Mode of a series is:

1.An average value.

2.A middle value.

3.Highest frequency value.

4.None of above.

4 / 20

_________ is used when representation value is required & distribution is asymmetric.

1.Mode.

2.Mean.

3.Median.

4.None of these.

5 / 20

The middle most value of a set of observations is:

1.Mean.

2.Mode.

3.Median.

4.None of these.

6 / 20

The values of extreme items do not influence the average in case of:

1.Mode.

2.Mean.

3.Median.

4.None of these.

7 / 20

Graphic location of mode is done with reference to:

1.Cumulative frequency curve.

2.Frequency polygon.

3.Histogram.

4.Frequency curve.

8 / 20

In case of an even number of observations, which of the following is median?

1.Any of the two middle-most value.

2.The weighted average of the two middle values.

3.The simple average of the two middle values.

4.Any of above.

9 / 20

Construction of a cumulative frequency table is useful in determining the .

1.Mean.

2.Median.

3.Mode.

4.All of these.

10 / 20

Most frequent occurring value in a series is called:

1.Mode.

2.Median.

3.Mean.

4.Quartiles.

11 / 20

For computing median, the values of different items given in the series should be arranged in:

1.Descending order.

2.Ascending order.

3.Either ascending or descending order.

4.None of the above.

12 / 20

The suitable measures of central tendency for qualitative data is:

1.Arithmetic mean.

2.Mode.

3.Median.

4.Geometric mean.

13 / 20

The sum of absolute deviations is minimum when taken from.

1.Arithmetic mean.

2.Median.

3.Mode.

4.None of These.

14 / 20

Sum of square of the deviations about mean is:

1.Zero.

2.Minimum.

3.Maximum.

4.None of these.

15 / 20

Which average is affected most by the presence of extreme items?

1.Arithmetic mean.

2.Geometric mean.

3.Median.

4.Mode.

16 / 20

Measures of central tendency are known as:

1.Difference.

2.Average.

3.Both.

4.None of these.

17 / 20

The median of the numbers 11, 10, 12, 13, 9 is .

1. 12.5

2. 12

3. 10.5

4. 11

18 / 20

For determination of mode, the class intervals should be .

1.Overlapping.

2.Maximum.

3.Minimum.

4.None of these.

19 / 20

A grouping table has:

1.4 columns.

2.8 columns.

3.6 columns.

4.None of these.

20 / 20

Other name of Simple Mean is:

1.Relative average.

2.Weighted average.

3.Unweighted average.

4.None of these.

Your score is

The average score is 0%

MARKET EQUILIBRIUM

1 / 20

When there is increase in demand and decrease in supply, equilibrium price:

1.Falls.

2.Rises.

3.Constant.

4.None of these.

2 / 20

Suppose that the supply of cameras increases due to an increase in imports. Which of the following statements will most likely occur?

1.The equilibrium price of cameras will increase.

2.The equilibrium quantity of cameras exchanged will decrease.

3.The equilibrium price of camera film will decrease.

4.The equilibrium quantity of camera film exchanged will increase.

3 / 20

In monopolistic competition, which relationship is true from the following between AR and MR?

1.AR = MR.

2.AR < MR.

3.AR > MR.

4.None of these.

4 / 20

When both demand and supply decrease in the same proportion, then the equilibrium quantity will:

1.Remain the same.

2.Rise.

3.Fall.

4.None of the above.

5 / 20

At a price above the equilibrium price, there is:

1.Excess supply.

2.Excess demand.

3.Ceiling.

4.Flooring.

6 / 20

If price is above then equilibrium Price, there is:

1.Excess demand.

2.Excess supply.

3.Price ceiling.

4.Price flooring.

7 / 20

Demand curve is inelastic under:

1.Perfect competition.

2.Monopoly.

3.Monopolistic competition.

4.All of the above.

8 / 20

Equilibrium price may be determined through _________ .

1.only demand.

2.only supply.

3.both demand and supply.

4.none of the above.

9 / 20

Demand curve is perfectly elastic under:

1.Perfect competition.

2.Monopoly.

3.Monopolistic competition.

4.All of the above.

10 / 20

Equilibrium price and output changes when:

1.Demand changes.

2.Supply changes.

3.Both demand and supply changes.

4.All of the above.

11 / 20

When both demand and supply increase in the same proportion then equilibrium quantity will:

1.Remain the same.

2.Rise.

3.Fall.

4.None of the above.

12 / 20

An increase in supply with demand remaining the same bring about .

1.an increase in equilibrium quantity and decrease in equilibrium price.

2.an increase in equilibrium price and decrease in equilibrium quantity.

3.decrease in both equilibrium price and quantity.

4.none of the above.

13 / 20

If there is shortage of certain goods, the government introduces for distribution of commodity to consumers.

1.planning.

2.marketing.

3.rationing.

4.financing.

14 / 20

Demand curve is elastic under:

1.Perfect competition.

2.Monopoly.

3.Monopolistic competition.

4.All of the above.

15 / 20

When increase in demand is more than increase in supply, then equilibrium price will:

1.Remain the same.

2.Rise.

3.Fall.

4.None of the above.

16 / 20

The product sold by monopolist has:

1.Many substitutes.

2.Close substitutes.

3.No close substitutes.

4.Perfect substitutes.

17 / 20

Entry is restricted under:

1.Perfect competition.

2.Monopoly.

3.Monopolistic competition.

4.All of the above.

18 / 20

There are only a few sellers under:

1.Perfect Competition.

2.Monopolistic competition.

3.Monopoly.

4.Oligopoly.

19 / 20

In perfect competition, as the firm is a price taker, the curve is a horizontal straight line.

1.marginal cost.

2.total cost.

3.total revenue.

4.marginal revenue.

20 / 20

If in an industry, demand and supply will not intersect in positive quadrant, then it is called:

1.Illegal industry.

2.Viable industry.

3.Non-viable industry.

4.Sick industry.

Your score is

The average score is 0%

INDEX NUMBERS

1 / 20

The index used to measure changes in total money value is called:

1.Price index.

2.Quantity index.

3.Value index.

4.None of the above.

2 / 20

Index number for the base period is always taken as:

1. 200

2. 50

3. 1

4. 100

3 / 20

A quantity index that is designed to measure changes in physical volume or production level of industrial goods over time is known as:

1.Physical Volume Index.

2.Time Index.

3.Index of Industrial Production.

4.None of the above

4 / 20

Whose formula is considered ideal for the construction of index number?

1.Paasche’s formula.

2.Laspeyer’s formula.

3.Fisher’s formula.

4.None of these.

5 / 20

A series of numerical figures which show the relative position is called:

1.Index number.

2.Relative number.

3.Absolute Number.

4.None of the above.

6 / 20

Paasche index is based on:

1.Base year quantities.

2.Current year quantities.

3.Average of current and base year.

4.None of these.

7 / 20

Index numbers can measure the averages of variables with ________ units:

1.Same.

2.Diverse.

3.Both (a) and (b).

4.None of these.

8 / 20

Fisher’s Ideal index is the:

1.Mean of Laspeyre’s and Paasche’s indexes.

2.Median of Laspeyre’s and Paasche’s indexes.

3.Geometric mean of Laspeyre’s and Paasche’s indexes.

4.None of the above.

9 / 20

Laspayer's index is based on:

1.Base year quantities.

2.Current year quantities.

3.Average of current and base year.

4.None of these.

10 / 20

Index no. is equal to:

1.Sum of price relatives.

2.Average of the price relatives.

3.Product of price relatives.

4.None.

11 / 20

Cost of living index numbers are also used to find real wage by the process of:

1.Base shifting.

2.Splicing of index number.

3.Deflating of index number.

4.None of the above.

12 / 20

The aggregate index formula using base period quantities is known as:

1.Laspeyre’s index.

2.Fisher’s Ideal index.

3.Bowley’s index.

4.Paasche’s index.

13 / 20

Which of the following statement is false?

1.The base period should be a normal period.

2.The base year quantities are used as weights in Paasche's method.

3.Fisher's Index is called Ideal index.

4.Laspeyer's Index makes use of base year quantities as weight.

14 / 20

Which of the following measures changes in retail price of the commodities?

1.Wholesale Price Index.

2.Weighted Index.

3.Consumer Price Index.

4.None of the above.

15 / 20

Price of top 30 shares of Bombay Stock Exchange increased, which of these will increase?

1.WPI.

2.CPI.

3.Inflation rate.

4.Sensex.

16 / 20

Index number serves as a for measuring the value of money:

1.Parameter.

2.Barometer.

3.Both (a) and (b).

4.None of these.

17 / 20

_________ is the benchmark index for the Indian stock market:

1.Price index.

2.Agricultural index.

3.Sensex.

4.None of these.

18 / 20

Which index measures the month to month change in cost of a representative basket of goods and services bought by a typical household?

1.Retail Price Index.

2.Wholesale Price Index.

3.Fisher's Index.

4.Paasche's Index.

19 / 20

Which of the following devices is used for measuring differences in the magnitude of a group of related variables?

1.Arithmetic mean.

2.Index number.

3.Correlation.

4.Mode.

20 / 20

Index of industrial production is a of quantitative relative:

1.Simple average.

2.Weighted average.

3.Both (a) and (b).

4.None of these.

Your score is

The average score is 0%

INTRODUCTION TO STATISTICS

1 / 25

From the given activities, which activity is called non-economic activity?

1.Services rendered by a teacher.

2.Organizing a free blood donation camp.

3.A tourist guide rendering services.

4.Manufacturing shirt with the help of cloth and tailoring.

2 / 25

______________ is the process through which consumers satisfy their wants by the use of goods and services.

1.Distribution.

2.Production.

3.Consumption.

4.None of the above.

3 / 25

Which activity is the base of all production activities?

1.Production.

2.Consumption.

3.Investment.

4.Exchange.

4 / 25

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

1.Resources have alternative uses.

2.All numbers are Statistics.

3.Macroeconomics studies large aggregates.

4.Statistics studies only the aggregates of quantitative facts.

5 / 25

In plural sense, which of the following is not a characteristic of Statistics?

1.Aggregate of data.

2.Only expressed in words.

3.Affected by multiplicity of causes.

4.Collected in a systematic manner.

6 / 25

'Economics is a study of mankind in the ordinary business of life'. This definition of Economics is given by:

1.Alfred Marshall.

2.Adam Smith.

3.Prof. Robbins.

4.Prof. Samuelson.

7 / 25

Which of the following statement does not hold true as one of the characteristic of statistics?

1.Statistics are aggregates of facts.

2.Statistics can be affected even by an individual variable.

3.Statistics are collected in a systematic manner.

4.Statistics are collected for a per-determined purpose.

8 / 25

Universe in Statistics means:

1.All celestial bodies.

2.People living on the earth.

3.People or things about which we are conducting a study or survey.

4.All of the above.

9 / 25

In relation to the means to satisfy them, human wants are always .

1.Meagre.

2.Scarce.

3.Sufficient.

4.Unlimited.

10 / 25

Statistical data are used for knowing about the progress in the:

1.Techniques of production.

2.Volume of production.

3.Imports and exports.

4.All of the above.

11 / 25

Which of the following is an economic activity?

1.Production

2.Consumption

3.Distribution

4.All of these

12 / 25

Which economic activity deals with the use of goods and services for the satisfaction of human wants?

1.Consumption.

2.Exchange.

3.Distribution.

4.Production.

13 / 25

With regards to distrust of Statistics which of the following statements is not correct?

1.Statistics is a rainbow of lies.

2.Statistics are tissues of falsehood.

3.Statistics express the facts in numbers.

4.There are three kinds of lies-lies, damned lies and statistics.

14 / 25

Which of the following is correct regarding Statistics?

1.Aggregate of facts.

2.Numerically expressed.

3.Affected by multiplicity of causes.

4.All of these.

15 / 25

The resources available with the given producer are:

1.Limited.

2.Have alternative uses.

3.Unlimited.

4.Both (a) and (b).

16 / 25

The statistical study begins with collection of data and ends with:

1.Organization of data.

2.Analysis of data.

3.Interpretation of data.

4.None of the above.

17 / 25

Which definition was given by Adam Smith?

1.Welfare Definition.

2.Scarcity Definition.

3.Wealth Definition.

4.Growth Oriented Definition.

18 / 25

Who produces goods and services for the generation of income?

1.Consumer.

2.Producer.

3.Both (a) and (b).

4.None of the above.

19 / 25

Statistics in a plural sense indicates:

1.Statistical data.

2.Statistical methods.

3.Inductive statistics.

4.Descriptive statistics

20 / 25

In which process, raw material is converted into end products having utility?

1.Consumption.

2.Production.

3.Investment.

4.Exchange.

21 / 25

"In statistics, homogeneity of data is not an essential requirement." The given statement is:

1.True.

2.False.

3.Partly true.

4.None of these.

22 / 25

Statistics in singular sense includes:

Collection of data.
Organization of data.
Presentation of data.
All of the above.

23 / 25

Statistics is the science of analyzing:

Any Kind of Data.
Qualitative Data.
Quantitative Data.
Imaginative data.

24 / 25

Statistical data are affected by ______ cause/ causes.

a single.
multiple.
Either (1) or (2).
All of these.

25 / 25

When economic facts are expressed in statistical terms they become:

Vague.
Exact.
Convincing.
Futile.

Your score is

The average score is 0%

INTRODUCTION TO MICRO-ECONOMIC

1 / 20

Price theory studies the problem of:

1.What goods to produce and how much to produce.

2.How to produce.

3.For whom to produce.

4.All of the above.

2 / 20

If the marginal (additional) opportunity cost is a constant, PPC would be:

1.Convex.

2.A straight line.

3.Backward bending.

4.Concave.

3 / 20

The study of microeconomics and macroeconomics is____________ .

1.Independent of each other.

2.Interrelated to each other.

3.Both (a) and (b).

4.None of the above.

4 / 20

Macroeconomics deals with:

1.The behaviour of firms.

2.The behaviour of electronics industry.

3.The activities of individual units.

4.Economic aggregates.

5 / 20

Who wrote ‘Nature and Causes of Wealth of Nations’?

1.Adam Smith

2.Alfred Marshall

3.Samuelson

4.Robbins

6 / 20

Which of the following theory is a part of macroeconomics?

1.Theory of consumer behavior.

2.Theory of producer behavior.

3.Theory of price.

4.Theory of investment multiplier.

7 / 20

The point on production possibility curve indicates:

1.Fuller utilization of resources.

2.Under utilization of resources.

3.Over utilization of resources.

4.Zero utilization of resources.

8 / 20

Production possibility curve (PPC) is defined as different combination of goods and services that can be produced by whom when the resources are fully employed?

1.Firm

2.Industry

3.Economy

4.All of the above

9 / 20

The reason behind a rightward or outward shift of PPC could be:

1.Growth of resources.

2.Technological advancement.

3.Fall in resources or obsolete technology.

4.Either (a) or (b) or both.

10 / 20

Which of the following is an assumption of Production Possibility Frontier?

1.Resources are not fully employed.

2.Resources are not equally efficient for production of the two goods.

3.Resources are not efficiently employed.

4.Resources available are not fixed.

11 / 20

Capital intensive technique is chosen in a:

1.Labour surplus economy.

2.Capital surplus economy.

3.Developed economy.

4.Developing economy.

12 / 20

Slope of production curve is:

1.a straight line.

2.convex to the point of origin ‘O’.

3.concave to the point of ‘O’.

4.none of these.

13 / 20

Total output of an economy is the sum of total output of individual producers. This statement proves that:

1.Macroeconomics depends on micro economics.

2.There is no correlation between micro and macroeconomics.

3.Study of micro and macro economics is independent of each other.

4.Microeconomics is dependent on macroeconomics.

14 / 20

The problem of 'what to produce' relates to:

1.The choice of technique.

2.Distribution of income.

3.Market value of the goods and services.

4.The choice of goods and services.

15 / 20

The central problem of how to produce is a problem of choice regarding:

1.Distribution.

2.Technique of production.

3.Quantity to be produced.

4.Commodities to be produced.

16 / 20

Microeconomics deals with which of the following?

1.Total output of an economy.

2.Measurement of a nation's inflation rate.

3.How producers and consumers interact in individual market?

4.How tax policies influence economic growth?

17 / 20

PPC is defined as different combination of goods and services that can be produced by whom, when the resources are fully employed?

1.Firm.

2.Industry.

3.Economy.

4.All of these.

18 / 20

Which one of the following options is likely to cause an inward shift in a country's PPC?

1.Earthquake destroying resources of the country.

2.Scientists discovering new machines.

3.Workers getting jobs in a new metro project.

4.The country finds new reserves of crude oil.

19 / 20

__________ is the problem which is concerned with the distribution of national income among those who have helped to produce it.

1.How to produce?

2.What to produce?

3.Why to produce?

4.For whom to produce?

20 / 20

Microeconomics is not concerned with the behaviour of:

1.National income.

2.A consumer.

3.A firm.

4.A producer.

Your score is

The average score is 0%

Micro & Macro Economics

1 / 20

Which of the following constitutes the major share in India’s foreign exchange reserves?
(A) Gold
(B) Foreign Currency Assets
(C) SDR at IMF
(D) Reserve Position at IMF

2 / 20

Which of the following given institutions founded the “Mobile Payment Forum of India”?
(A) IIT Bombay
(B) IIT Delhi
(C) IIT Chennai
(D) IIM Ahmedabad

3 / 20

What would be the growth rate of India in the financial year (2021-22) as per SBI research?
(A) 5.4 %
(B) 7.4 %
(C) 10.4%
(D) 11.4%

4 / 20

Name the organization which publishes the Consumer Confidence Index
(A) SEBI
(B) NABARD
(C) State Bank of India
(D) RBI

5 / 20

‘The General Theory of Employment, Interest, and Money is a famous book written by which among the following?
(A) J.M. Keynes
(B) Robert Sahhlas
(C) Wassily Leontief
(D) Paul Krugman

6 / 20

What does RBC stand for?

(A) Random Business Cycle
(B) Rational Business Cycle
(C) Revolutionary Business Cycle
(D) Real Business Cycle

7 / 20

The term “National income” refers to the?

(A) total employment
(B) total unemployment
(C) global employment
(D) local employment

8 / 20

Which of the given options would be studied in a microeconomics course?
(A) How an increase in the tax rate affects the overall performance
(B) Comparison of inflation rates between countries
(C) How a trade agreement between the United States and Mexico affects both nations’ unemployment rates
(D) Impact of rental roofs on the housing supply

9 / 20

Keynesian economics is primarily focused on
(A) national income
(B) company balance
(C) resource allocation
(D) All of the above

10 / 20

Macroeconomic issues include:
(A) the impact of government regulation on markets
(B) total employment nationwide
(C) studying what factors affect the price and quantity of automobiles
(D) studying the regulation of wages and production costs in the software industry

11 / 20

Macroeconomics is the branch of economics that deals with:
(A) the prices of individual goods
(B) important rather than trivial issues
(C) how individual markets work
(D) the economy as a whole

12 / 20

Which of the following given agencies has published “expected loss-based ratings”?
(A) RBI
(B) SEBI
(C) PFRDA
(D) IRDAI

13 / 20

Which of the following explains the difference between microeconomics and macroeconomics?
(A) microeconomics studies the impact of government taxes on the national unemployment rate
(B) macroeconomics studies the impact of government regulation and taxes on the price of individual commodities and services while microeconomics does not
(C) use different sets of tools and ideas
(D) microeconomics studies the decisions of individuals and firms and macroeconomics studies the entire economy

14 / 20

Microeconomics includes all of the following EXCEPT.
(A) the effect of increasing the money supply on inflation
(B) the purchasing decisions of an individual consumer
(C) the effect of an increase in cigarette tax on cigarette sales
(D) the hiring decisions a firm makes

15 / 20

Which of the following is a microeconomic problem?
(A) the reasons why average prices are falling
(B) the reasons Kathy is buying less orange juice
(C) the reason why overall employment may fall
(D) the impact of the government budget deficit on inflation

16 / 20

Which of the following is a macroeconomic problem?

(A) What do plumbers earn more than janitors
(B) the reasons for the increase in average prices
(C) whether the army should buy more tanks or more missiles
(D) the reasons for the increase in the price of orange juice

17 / 20

Economics is the study of:

(A) the distribution of surplus goods to those in need.
(B) affluence in a morally bankrupt world.
(C) ways to reduce want to eliminate the problem of scarcity.
(D) the choices we make because of scarcity.

18 / 20

The study of determining the prices in individual markets is called…
(A) negative economics
(B) microeconomics
(C) positive economics
(D) macroeconomics

19 / 20

The most fundamental economic problem is…..
(A) Security
(B) European countries buy more goods from foreigners than supply to foreigners
(C) health
(D) Scarcity

20 / 20

What does the term “Incentive” mean?
(A) It is the opposite of a tradeoff.
(B) It could be a reward but could not be a penalty.
(C) It could either be a reward or a penalty.
(D) It could be a penalty but could not be a reward.

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ECONOMICS

1 / 20

Apart from the availability of raw materials, the location of an industry also depends upon the availability of:

[A] environmental protection and vegetation

[B] man power and energy source

[C] transport and bio energy

[D] water and inputs

2 / 20

In which year International Labour Organisation (ILO) was established?

[A] 1910

[B] 1914

[C] 1919

[D] 1921

3 / 20

In which city, the headquarters of Steel Authority of India (SAIL) are situated ?

[A] Mumbai

[B] Delhi

[C] Amritsar

[D] Patna

4 / 20

Which is the largest exported item of India?

[A] Refined Petrol

[B] Diamond

[C] Rice

[D] Aluminium

5 / 20

In which year Dredging Corporation of India was established?

[A] 1976

[B] 1977

[C] 1979

[D] 1982

6 / 20

How many major ports are there in India?

7 / 20

What is MSF stands for?

[A] Marginal standing funds

[B] Marginal stauatory funds

[C] Marginal standing facility

[D] Mean statuatory facility

8 / 20

What is the difference between repo and reverse repo?

[A] 30 basis points

[B] 15 basis points

[C] 50 basis points

[D] 25 basis points

9 / 20

What is the FDI allowed in duty-free shops under the automatic route?

[A] 100%

[B] 70%

[C] 75%

[D] 49%

10 / 20

Which industry is known as “Child of protection”?

[A] Textile Industry

[B] Sugar Industry

[C] Cotton Industry

[D] Paper Industry

11 / 20

Which is the top imported commodity of India in terms of value in the Gems and jewelry sector in 2019?

[A] Rough Diamonds

[B] Gold Bars

[C] Polished diamonds

[D] Silver Bars

12 / 20

Which is the largest 2 wheeler manufacturing company in the world?

[A] Hero Moto corp

[B] Honda

[C] Bajaj Auto

[D] Suzuki

13 / 20

What is the GST percentage on Electric vehicles?

[A] 12%

[B] 5%

[C] 18%

[D] 26%

14 / 20

What is an agglomeration economy?

[A] Industries using urban centre

[B] Industries using rural centre

[C] Industries providing different services

[D] None of these

15 / 20

What is the contribution of Animal husbandry to Indian GDP?

[A] 5.19%

[B] 4.11%

[C] 3.41%

[D] 2.19%

16 / 20

What is re-harvesting known as?

[A] Ratooning

[B] Solid Planting

[C] Mulching

[D] None of the above

17 / 20

Which Indian law bans the usage of GM seeds without approval?

[A] Seeds Act, 1966

[B] Seeds Rules, 1968

[C] Environmental Protection Act, 1986

[D] Environmental Protection Act, 2000

18 / 20

Which color certificate is issued for a registered seed?

[A] Red

[B] Blue

[C] Yellow

[D] Grey

19 / 20

During which five-year plan the Private sector was given priority over the public sector?

[A] 5th

[B] 7th

[C] 6th

[D] 8th

20 / 20

What does a good with positive externalities known as?

[A] Giffen goods

[B] Public goods

[C] Merit goods

[D] Snob good

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COLLECTION OF DATA

1 / 20

____________ method of investigation is suitable only when the respondents are educated.

1.Direct personal investigation.

2.Indirect oral investigation.

3.Telephone interviews.

4.Mailing questionnaire.

2 / 20

In __________ method the investigator appoints local agents or correspondents in different areas of enquiry.

1.Mailing questionnaire.

2.Schedule filled by enumerators.

3.Information from correspondent

4.None of the above.

3 / 20

_________ is used when the researcher has access to all the members.

1.Telephone interview.

2.Personal interview.

3.Indirect oral investigation.

4.None of the above.

4 / 20

Which type of questions should not be there in a questionnaire?

1.Simple.

2.Personal.

3.Clear cut.

4.Properly sequenced.

5 / 20

The last census of India was conducted in the year

1. 2010.

2. 2011.

3. 2012.

4. 2013.

6 / 20

Vardaan wants to find the average height of 4 of his friends. Which source of data collection would be suitable for him?

1.nternal source.

2.External source.

3.Primary source.

4.Secondary source.

7 / 20

Statistical units should be based on data.

1.qualitative

2.quantitative

3.Both (a) and (b)

4.None of the above

8 / 20

Which data is collected by the investigator himself?

1.Primary.

2.Secondary.

3.Both (a) and(b).

4.Neither of the above.

9 / 20

If the investigator wants to select a sample on the basis of diverse characteristics of the population, which method should he use?

1.Convenience sampling method.

2.Quota sampling method.

3.Stratified sampling method.

4.Both (b) and (c).

10 / 20

Personal bias is possible under:

1.Random sampling.

2.Purposive sampling.

3.Stratified sampling.

4.Quota sampling.

11 / 20

Reliability of sampling data depends on:

1.Size of sample.

2.Method of sampling.

3.Training of enumerators.

4.All of these.

12 / 20

'Sarvekshana', the quarterly journal is published by:

1.UNO.

2.NSSO.

3.FICCI.

4.None of these.

13 / 20

Which of the following factor(s) are considered when comparison between sampling and census method is made?

1.Area of survey.

2.Accuracy of data.

3.Cost of collection.

4.All of these.

14 / 20

In ________ method of primary data collection, the investigator can make necessary adjustment in his set of questions.

1.Direct personal investigation.

2.Indirect oral investigation.

3.Telephone interviews.

4.None of these.

15 / 20

Under random sampling, each item of the universe has ________ chance of being selected.

1.Equal

2.Unequal

3.Zero

4.None of these.

16 / 20

Which method of collection of data covers the widest area?

1.Direct personal investigation.

2.Mailed questionnaire method.

3.Telephone interview method.

4.All of these.

17 / 20

_________ refers to the difference between the actual value of a parameter of the population and its estimate.

1.Errors.

2.Mistake.

3.Both (a) and (b).

4.None of these.

18 / 20

The first census of independent India was conducted in the year.

1. 1948.

2. 1949.

3. 1950.

4. 1951.

19 / 20

A survey in which information is collected from each and every unit of the population is known as:

1.Sample survey.

2.Census survey.

3.Pilot survey.

4.Market survey.

20 / 20

Which survey is a try-out with a small group that is done to assess the suitability of questions, clarity of instructions and cost and time involved in actual survey?

1.Census survey.

2.Pilot survey.

3.Sample survey.

4.None of these.

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CORRELATION

1 / 21

Correlation is an analysis of _________ between two or more variables:

1. Relationship.

2. Covariation.

3. Determination.

4. Calculation.

2 / 21

Rank correlation is a superior method of analysis in case of _______ distribution.

1. Qualitative.

2. Quantitative.

3. Frequency.

4. None of these.

3 / 21

In a ‘negative’ relationship:

1. As x increases, y increases.

2. As x decreases, y decreases.

3. As x increases, y decreases.

4. Both (a) and (b).

4 / 21

Which correlation coefficient indicates strongest relationship?

1. r=0.4

2. r=0.8

3. r=0.09

4. r=0.2

5 / 21

When the variable cannot be measured precisely:

1. Rank Correlation can be used.

2. Karl Pearson's Co-efficient of correlation can be used.

3. Scatter diagram can be used.

4. None of the above.

6 / 21

________ is a graphical method of studying correlation:

1. Histogram.

2. Bar diagram.

3. Scatter diagram.

4. Circle diagram.

7 / 21

Which of the following techniques deals with the association between two or more variables?

1. Index number.

2. Correlation.

3. Dispersion.

4. None of the above.

8 / 21

When the relation of three or more variables is studied simultaneously, it is called:

1. Simple correlation.

2. Partial correlation.

3. Multiple correlation.

4. None of these.

9 / 21

The coefficient of correlation is independent of:

1. Origin but not scale.

2. Scale but not origin.

3. Both origin and scale.

4. Neither origin nor scale.

10 / 21

Of the following measures, which can measure Qualitative variable?

1. Karl Pearson's coefficient of correlation.

2. Scatter diagram.

3. Spearman's rank correlation.

4. All of the above.

11 / 21

If there is a perfect disagreement between the marks in geography and hair statistics, then what would be the
value of rank correlation coefficient?

1. 1.

2. Any value.

3. -1.

4. (a) or (c).

12 / 21

The coefficient of correlation is independent of:

1. Change of scale only.

2. Change of origin only.

3. Both change of scale and origin.

4. None of the above.

13 / 21

Correlation coefficient is dependent on the: (i) choice of origin and (ii) the scale of observations.

1. Both are true.

2. is true and (ii) is false.

3. Both are false.

4. (i) is false and (ii) is true.

14 / 21

If r is the correlation coefficients between the two variables, then:

1. -1 ≤ r ≤ 0

2. 1≤ r ≤ 2

3. -1 ≤ r ≤ 1

4. 0 ≤ r ≤ 1

15 / 21

The correlation between sale of woolen garments and day temperature is:

1. Positive.

2. Negative.

3. Zero.

4. None of these.

16 / 21

If the scatter points are widely dispersed around the line, the correlation is:

1. High.

2. Low.

3. Moderate.

4. None of the above.

17 / 21

Karl Pearson's coefficient of correlation ranges from:

1. + 1 to -1.

2. – 1 to 0 5.

3. 0 to 1.

4. - 2 to + 2.

18 / 21

When two variables change in a constant proportion, it is called:

1. 1.Linear correlation.

2. Non-linear correlation.

3. Partial correlation.

4. None of these.

19 / 21

To construct a scatter diagram, independent variable is taken on _________.

1. X-axis.

2. Y-axis.

3. Either X-axis or Y-axis.

4. None of the above.

20 / 21

When the mean of series is a decimal number, then which method should be used for computing Karl Pearson's
coefficient of correlation?

1. Direct Method.

2. Short-cut Method.

3. Step Deviation Method.

4. None of the above.

21 / 21

A Lorenz curve is used to measure:
1. Correlation.
2. Variation.
3. Arrangement of frequencies.
4. Association of attributes.

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